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Need help understanding "shares of preference".

I have test data from a handful of participants on CBC task with 18 possible product options. If I pit two hypothetical products against each other using the market simulator, how do you interpret the "shares of preference" in plain language.

For example, Product A = 77.8%; Product B = 22.2%, what's a way to interpret that without using the term "shares of preference".
asked Jan 13 by anonymous
Just to add another comment, the term "share of preference" is kind of intentional instead of market share because there are probably a lot more variables that would go into the actual market share a product would receive (advertising, availability, shelf position, etc.).  So in conjoint analysis share of preference is often used because the model is only built on the choice tasks (preference) of the respondents and doesn't have all the other things that would help us to predict market share.

1 Answer

0 votes
The interpretation would be: If respondents were offered just these two products and had to choose one or the other, 78% would choose the first and 22% the second.
answered Jan 13 by Bryan Orme Platinum Sawtooth Software, Inc. (181,340 points)
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